Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -8 (DBMS -Database Management Systems )

1 Consider the join of relation R with a relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum and minimum size of the join respectively are
(A) m+n and 0 (B) m+n and |m-n|
(C) mn and 0 (D) mn and m+n


2 Maximum height of a B+ tree of order m with n key values is
(A) Logm(n) (B) (m+n)/2
(C) Logm/2(m+n) (D) None of these


3 Which one is true statement :
(A) With finer degree of granularity of locking a high degree of concurrency is
possible.
(B) Locking prevents non – serializable schedules.
(C) Locking cannot take place at field level.
(D) An exclusive lock on data item X is granted even if a shared lock is already
held on X.


4 Which of the following statement on the view concept in SQL is invalid?
(A) All views are not updateable
(B) The views may be referenced in an SQL statement whenever tables are
referenced.
(C) The views are instantiated at the time they are referenced and not when they
are defined.
(D) The definition of a view should not have GROUP BY clause in it.


5 Which of the following concurrency control schemes is not based on the serializability property?
(A) Two – phase locking (B) Graph-based locking
(C) Time-stamp based locking (D) None of these .

6 Which of the following is a reason to model data?
(A) Understand each user’s perspective of data
(B) Understand the data itself irrespective of the physical representation
(C) Understand the use of data across application areas
(D) All of the above


7 If an entity can belong to only one lower level entity then the constraint is
(A) disjoint (B) partial
(C) overlapping (D) single


8 The common column is eliminated in
(A) theta join (B) outer joinAC14/AT11
(C) natural join (D) composed join


9 In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done using
(A) DISTINCT (B) UNIQUE
(C) NULL (D) EXISTS


10. Use of UNIQUE while defining an attribute of a table in SQL means that the attribute
values are
(A) distinct values (B) cannot have NULL
(C) both (A) & (B) (D) same as primary key


11 .The cost of reading and writing temporary files while evaluating a query can be reduced
by
(A) building indices (B) pipelining
(C) join ordering (D) none of the above


12. A transaction is in __________ state after the final statement has been executed.
(A) partially committed (B) active
(C) committed (D) none of the above


13. In multiple granularity of locks SIX lock is compatible with
(A) IX (B) IS
(C) S (D) SIX


14. The statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of the
modification of the database is
(A) backup (B) assertion
(C) recovery (D) trigger


15 .The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is
(A) 2NF (B) 3NF
(C) BCNF (D) 4NF


16. A functional dependency of the form x → y is trivial if AC14/AT11 Database Management Systems
9
(A) y ⊆ x (B) y ⊂ x
(C) x ⊆ y (D) x ⊂ y

17. The normalization was first proposed by ______________.
(A) Code (B) Codd
(C) Boyce Codd (D) Boyce


18. The division operator divides a dividend A of degree m+n by a divisor relation B of
degree n and produces a result of degree
(A) m – 1 (B) m + 1
(C) m * m (D) m


19 .Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?
(A) Table (B) Tree like structure
(C) Complex logical relationship (D) Records


20. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared
lock on R.
(A) It will result in a deadlock situation.
(B) It will immediately be rejected.
(C) It will immediately be granted.
(D) It will be granted as soon as it is released by A .

SBI CLERICAL RECRUITMENT [ASSISTANTS AND STENOGRAPHERS] 2012- POST OF 8500

• This advertisement is in modification of our earlier advertisement CRPD/CR/2011-12/05 dated 27.12.2011
• The vacancy position stands revised.
• Revised Vacancies: Assistants - 8 5 0 0   ( I n c l u s i v e   o f   3 1 0 0   v a c a n c i e s   a l r e a d y   a d v e r t i s e d   v i d e
our advertisement dated 27.12.2011). Stenographers (English) - 900, Hindi - 100
• The date of examination stands postponed from 18.03.2012
Revised Dates of Written Examination : 27.05.2012 and 03.06.2012
Bank may conduct written test on more than two dates, if need be.
On-line Registration will start from : 05.03.2012
Last Date for Registration of Online Applications : 26.03.2012
Payment of Fees : 07.03.2012 to 31.03.2012

Educational Qualification (as on 01.12.2011)

i) Minimum 12th Standard (10 + 2) pass or equivalent qualification with a minimum of
aggregate 60% marks (55% for SC/ ST/ PWD/ XS).
OR
ii) A degree (Graduation level) from a recognised university.

Candidates who have not passed 12th standard Examination but have passed Diploma
course after 10th standard are eligible for the captioned recruitment provided:
(a) Diploma course passed after 10th standard must be a full time course (Diploma
course through correspondence are not eligible) with a minimum of two years
duration.
(b) The Diploma course passed after 10th standard should be recognized / approved by
the State Board of Technical Education of concerned State.
(c) The percentage of marks in 12th/ Diploma Course shall be arrived at by dividing the
marks obtained by the candidate in all subjects by aggregate maximum marks of all
subjects irrespective of optional/additional optional subjects studied. Grace marks,
if any, awarded by the Board/University will be excluded for the purpose of calculation
of percentage. The date of passing the eligibility examination will be the date
appearing on the marksheet/provisional certificate or the date on which the result
was posted on the website of the university / institution.
(d) Matriculate Ex-servicemen, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate
of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force, after having
completed not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also
eligible for the post. Such certificates should be dated on or before 01.12.2011.
(e) Should be able to write and speak English fluently.
(f) Knowledge of local language will be an added qualification.
4. Age: (As on 01.12.2011)
i. Minimum Age : 18 years ; Maximum Age : 28 years (as on 01.12.2011). Candidates
born between 30.11.1983 & 01.12.1993 are only eligible to apply.

MORE DETAILS : https://www.sbi.co.in/webfiles/uploads/files/1330520572227_NEW_ADVERTISEMENT_2011-12-5A.pdf

ibps clerk score card 2011-2012

Mr Balachandran said that the despatch of scorecards by ‘speed post’ to all successful candidates will begin tomorrow and will be done over the next four days. Candidates will also be sent a tracking number by e-mail or SMS to enable them to track their scorecard.

The successful candidates (about 5.31 lakh) are expected to compete for about 20,000 clerical vacancies across public sector banks. Banks are expected to come out with their recruitment advertisements within the next three weeks

IBPS CWE Clerk Exam Result 2011

IBPS which is also know as Institute of Banking Personnel Selection  is unified body to conduct exams for selection of banking professional in India is all set to announce the result of Common Written Examination (CWE) for the clerk project 2011.

According to the information given on the official  website of IBPS, The Clerk results will be made available online on the website from 29th February 2012 after 3:00 PM. Candidates looking for their result can also contact on the IBPS helpline number for extra details on the announcement of the result.

IBPS CWE CLerk Result 2011

The CWE for clerks recruitment 2011 was conducted in November – December 2011, the result of which is most eagerly awaited today.

Read more »

5.31 lakh candidates pass bank clerical exam

About 5.31-lakh candidates have passed the first common written examination for clerical posts in public sector banks. About 1.21 lakh candidates of the successful candidates belonged to the SC/ST category. The exam was conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, Mumbai.

Mr M. Balachandran, Director, IBPS, said that roughly one in six candidates had qualified in the exam. There were 43.14 lakh candidates who had registered for the exam, but about 30.54 lakh persons appeared for it.

Read more »

‎5.31 Lakh Candidates Pass Bank Clerical Exam

Business Line

MUMBAI, FEB 29:

About 5.31-lakh candidates have passed the first common written examination for clerical posts in public sector banks. About 1.21 lakh candidates of the successful candidates belonged to the SC/ST category. The exam was conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection, Mumbai.

Mr M. Balachandran, Director, IBPS, said that roughly one in six candidates had qualified in the exam. There were 43.14 lakh candidates who had registered for the exam, but about 30.54 lakh persons appeared for it.

The results of successful candidates will be available on the IBPS Web site from 1.30 p.m. onwards.
Successful candidates

Giving further details, Mr Balachandran said there were 1.72 lakh successful candidates from the general category and 2.37 lakh successful candidates belonging to the OBC category.

He said the list of successful candidates would be available next week on the IBPS website. A week from now, candidates will be able to log on and check their individual scores. And after a fortnight, unsuccessful candidates will be able to see their marks.
The access is being staggered to make it possible for the website to handle the expected load on the system, since over 30 lakh candidates wrote the exam.
Mr Balachandran said that the despatch of scorecards by ‘speed post’ to all successful candidates will begin tomorrow and will be done over the next four days. Candidates will also be sent a tracking number by e-mail or SMS to enable them to track their scorecard.

The successful candidates (about 5.31 lakh) are expected to compete for about 20,000 clerical vacancies across public sector banks. Banks are expected to come out with their recruitment advertisements within the next three weeks.

How to Prepare ibps clerical Interview ?

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Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -7 (DBMS -Database Management Systems )

1 In SQL the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to
(A) Select * from R natural join S. (B) Select * from R cross join S.
(C) Select * from R union join S. (D) Select * from R inner join S.


2 Which of the following is not a consequence of concurrent operations?
(A) Lost update problem. (B) Update anomaly.
(C) Unrepeatable read. (D) Dirty read.


3 As per equivalence rules for query transformation, selection operation distributes over
(A) Union. (B) Intersection.
(C) Set difference. (D) All of the above.


4 The metadata is created by the
(A) DML compiler (B) DML pre-processor
(C) DDL interpreter (D) Query interpreter


5 When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the representation is redundant for
(A) weak entity sets (B) weak relationship sets
(C) strong entity sets (D) strong relationship sets


6 When ∩ S = φ R , then the cost of computing R >< S is
 (A) the same as R × S (B) greater the R × S (C) less than R × S (D) cannot say anything
 

7 .In SQL the word ‘natural’ can be used with
(A) inner join (B) full outer join
(C) right outer join (D) all of the above


8 The default level of consistency in SQL is
(A) repeatable read (B) read committed
(C) read uncommitted (D) serializable


9 If a transaction T has obtained an exclusive lock on item Q, then T can
(A) read Q (B) write Q
(C) both read and write Q (D) write Q but not read Q


10 .Shadow paging has
(A) no redo (B) no undo
(C) redo but no undo (D) neither redo nor undo


11 . If the closure of an attribute set is the entire relation then the attribute set is a
(A) superkey (B) candidate key
(C) primary key (D) not a key


12 .DROP is a ______________ statement in SQL.
(A) Query (B) Embedded SQL
(C) DDL (D) DCL


13 .If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching tuples of both R and S are
ignored in
(A) left outer join (B) right outer join
(C) full outer join (D) inner join


14 . The keyword to eliminate duplicate rows from the query result in SQL is
(A) DISTINCT (B) NO DUPLICATE
(C) UNIQUE (D) None of the above
`

15 .In 2NF
(A) No functional dependencies (FDs) exist.
(B) No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) exist.
(C) No partial FDs exist.
(D) No partial MVDs exist. AC14/AT11


16 . Which one is correct statement?
Logical data independence provides following without changing application programs:
(i) Changes in access methods.
(ii) Adding new entities in database
(iii) Splitting an existing record into two or more records
(iv) Changing storage medium
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iv) only, (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)


17 . In an E-R, Y is the dominant entity and X is a subordinate entity. Then which of the
following is incorrect :
(A) Operationally, if Y is deleted, so is X
(B) existence is dependent on Y.
(C) Operationally, if X is deleted, so is Y.
(D) Operationally, if X is deleted, & remains the same.


18 .Relational Algebra is
(A) Data Definition Language .
(B) Meta Language
(C) Procedural query Language
(D) None of the above


19. Which of the following aggregate functions does not ignore nulls in its results?.
(A) COUNT . (B) COUNT (*)
(C) MAX (D) MIN


20 .R (A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the following does not have a lossless join
dependency preserving BCNF decomposition
(A) A B, B CD (B) A B, B C, C D .
(C) AB C, C AD (D) A BCD

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -6 (DBMS -Database Management Systems )

Q.1 Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating
tables to be union-compatible?
(A) Union (B) Intersection
(C) Difference (D) Join


Q.2 Which of the following is not a property of transactions?
(A) Atomicity (B) Concurrency
(C) Isolation (D) Durability


Q.3 Relational Algebra does not have
(A) Selection operator. (B) Projection operator.
(C) Aggre gation operators. (D) Division operator.


Q.4 Checkpoints are a part of
(A) Recovery measures. (B) Security measures.
(C ) Concurrency measures. (D) Authorization measures.


Q.5 Tree structures are used to store data in
(A) Network model. (B) Relational model.
(C) Hierarchical model. (D) File based system.


Q.6 The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying
exactly how to get it is
(A) Procedural DML. (B) Non-Procedural DML.
(C) Procedural DDL. (D) Non-Procedural DDL.


Q.7 Precedence graphs help to find a AC14/AT11
(A) Serializable schedule. (B) Recoverable schedule.
(C) Deadlock free schedule. (D) Cascadeless schedule.


Q.8 The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is
called a
(A) Referential constraint. (B) Index.
(C) Integrity constraint. (D) Functional dependency.


Q.9 The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or
descending order based on the values of one or more columns is
(A) View (B) Order by
(C) Group by (D) Having


Q.10 What is a disjoint less constraint?
(A) It requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set.
(B) The same entity may belong to more than one level.
(C) The database must contain an unmatched foreign key value.
(D) An entity can be joined with another entity in the same level entity set.


Q.11 According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called
(A) Logical schema. (B) Physical schema.
(C) Subschema. (D) Super schema.
e. none


Q.12 It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities
(A) Generalization. (B) Specialization.
(C) Aggregation. (D) Inheritance.


Q.13 A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an
attribute of other composite key.
(A) 2NF (B) 3NF
(C) BCNF (D) 1NF



Q.14 What is data integrity?
(A) It is the data contained in database that is non redundant.
(B) It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.
(C) It is the data contained in database that is secured.
(D) It is the data contained in database that is shared.



Q.15 What are the desirable properties of a decomposition
(A) Partition constraint. (B) Dependency preservation.
(C) Redundancy. (D) Security.


Q.16 In an E-R diagram double lines indicate
(A) Total participation. (B) Multiple participation.
(C) Cardinality N. (D) None of the above.


Q.17 The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is
(A) Join. (B) Selection.
(C) Union. (D) Cross product.


Q.18 Fifth Normal form is concerned with
(A) Functional dependency. (B) Multivalued dependency.
(C) Join dependency. (D) Domain-key.


Q.19 Block-interleaved distributed parity is RAID level
(A) 2. (B) 3
(C) 4. (D) 5.



Q.20 Immediate database modification technique uses
(A) Both undo and redo. (B) Undo but no redo.
(C) Redo but no undo. (D) Neither undo nor redo.

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam some Topics

Q1. What is Client-server Computing?

Ans: The short answer: Client/server is a computational architecture that involves client processes
requesting service from server processes.
The long answer: Client/server computing is the logical extension of modular programming. Modular programming has as its fundamental assumption that separation of a large piece of software into its constituent parts ("modules") creates the possibility for easier development and better maintainability. Client/server computing takes this a step farther by recognizing that those modules need not all be executed within the same memory space. 

With this architecture, the calling module becomes the "client" (that which requests a service), and the called module becomes the "server" (that which provides the service). The logical extension of this is to have clients and servers running on the appropriate hardware and software platforms for their functions. For example, database management system servers running on platforms specially designed and configured to perform queries, or file servers running on platforms with special elements for managing files. It is this latter perspective that has created the widely-believed myth that client/server has something to do with PCs or Unix machines.

Q2 What is a Client process?

Ans: The client is a process (program) that sends a message to a server process (program), requesting that the server perform a task (service). Client programs usually manage the user-interface portion of the application, validate data entered by the user, dispatch requests to server programs, and sometimes execute business logic. The client-basedprocess is the front- end of the application that the user sees and interacts with. The client process contains solution-specific logic and provides the interface between the user and the rest of the application system. The client process also manages the local resources that the user interacts with such as the monitor, keyboard, workstation CPU and peripherals. One of the key elements of a client workstation is the graphical user interface (GUI). Normally a part of operating system i.e. the window manager detects user actions, manages the windows on the display and displays the data in the windows.

Q3 What is a Server process?

Ans : A server process (program) fulfills the client request by performing the task requested. Server programs generally receive requests from client programs, execute database retrieval and updates, manage data integrity and dispatch responses to client requests. Sometimes server programs execute common or complex business logic. The server-based process "may" run on another machine on the network. This server could be the host operating system or network file server; the server is then provided both file system services and application services. Or in some cases, another desktop machine provides the application services. The server process acts as a software engine that manages shared resources such as databases, printers, communication links, or high powered-processors. The server process performs the back-end tasks that are common to similar applications.

Q4 What is a Two-Tier Architecture?

Ans : A two-tier architecture is where a client talks directly to a server, with no intervening server. It is typically used in small environments (less than 50 users). A common error in client/server development is to prototype an application in a small, two-tier environment, and then scale up by simply adding more users to the server. This approach will usually result in an ineffective system, as the server becomes overwhelmed. To properly scale to hundreds or thousands of users, it is usually necessary to move to a three-tier architecture.

Q5 What is a Three-Tier Architecture?

A three-tier architecture introduces a server (or an "agent") between the client and the server. The role of the agent is manyfold. It can provide translation services (as in adapting a legacy application on a mainframe to a client/server environment), metering services (as in acting as a transaction monitor to limit the number of simultaneous requests to a given server), or intellegent agent services (as in mapping a request to a number of different servers, collating the results, and returning a single response to the client.

IBPS clerical results will bE out 2moro after 3 p.m... 29.02.2012

clerical results will b out 2moro after 3 p.m...
The Qualifying Status of candidates who appeared for CWE Clerk project 2011 will be available on our website from 29th february 2012 after 3:00 PM

Helpline Number: 022-29687111
http://www.ibps.in/html/CWE_CL_Result.htm

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -5

1.Which of the following packages is used for composition in printing press?
(a) Lotus (b) dBase (c) Page Maker (d) Word Perfect


2. Which one of the following is not a computer language?
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) LOTUS (d) FORTRAN


4. An advantage of a distributed word processing network is
(a) increased number of reports handled
(b) less delay in inter-office communications
(c) greater corporate control over outputs
(d) All of these


5.The retrieval of information from the computer is defined as
(a) collection of data (b) data retrieval operations
(c) output (d) data output collection


6. Which of the following terms could be used to describe the concurrent processing of computer programs via CRTs, on one computer system?
(a) Time sharing (b) On-line processing
(c) Interactive processing (d) All of these


7.The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of
(a) batch processing (b) real-time processing
(c) time-sharing (d) off-line processing


8. A characteristic of card system is
(a) slowness in processing data
(b) using cards as records of transactions
(c) needing a larger data staff
(d) All of these

9. Which of the following floppy sizes exists?
(a) 5.25 inches (b) 4.75 inches (c) 6 inches (d) 8 inches


10. MS-DOS is the name of a/an
(a) Application software (b) Hardware
(c) System software (d) None of these


11. A peripheral device used in a word processing system is
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic card reader
(c) CRT (d) All of these


12. A term used interchangeably with diskette is
(a) Disk cartridge (b) Disk pack
(c) Floppy disk (d) Packette disk


13. An I/O device which provides photographic outputs for printing galleys, is the
(a) Camera printer (b) Automatic typesetter
(c) Radix printer (d) All of these


14. Which one of the following a file?
(a) Floppy disk (b) Magnetic drum (c) magnetic tape (d) None of these


15.A decimal equivalent of m second is
(a) 0.000001 sec (b) 1000000 sec (c) 0.001 sec (d) 1000 sec


16. A characteristic of the ASCII code is
(a) its limitation to a maximum of 96 character configuration
(b) its use of the zone codes 1010, 1011 and 1100
(c) its independence from Hollerith code
(d) All of these


17. A temporary storage area, attached to the CPU, for I/O operations, is a
(a) Channel (b) Buffer (c) Register (d) Core


18. The computer code for interchange of information between terminals is
(a) ASCII (b) BCD (c) BCDIC (d) Hollerith


19. ROM is composed of
(a) Magnetic cores (b) Micro-processors
(c) Photoelectric cells (d) Floppy disks


20. Which of the following is true?
(a) Plotters are not available for microcomputer systems
(b) Micro-computer are not programmed like conventional computers
(c) Mini-computers are task-oriented
(d) The contents of ROM are easily changed


21. Magnetic disk a medium known as
(a) Serial access (b) Direct access (c) Sequential access (d) Sequential and rotational access


22. A dot-matrix printer
(a) is an input-output device (b) is an output device only
(c) is an input device only (d) None of these


23.An octal number 237 is equal to the binary number
(a) 010 011 111 (b) 010 111 011
(c) 011 101 101 (d) 011 000 001


24. A term associated with the comparison of processing speed is
(a) FFTS (b) MPG (c) MIPS (d) CPS


25. The maximum size of a memory addressed by 12 bits is
(a) 1 K bytes (b) 16 K bytes (c) 32 K bytes (d) 4 K bytes

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -4

1. Register is a
(a) Set of capacitors used to register input instructions in a digital computer
(b) Set of paper tapes and cards put in a file
(c) Temporary storage unit within the CPU having dedicated or general purpose use
(d) part of the auxiliary memory
(e) device to convert current signal into voltage signal


2. Errors in computer results could be due to
(a) encoding of data (b) transmission of data
(c) manipulation of data (d) all of the above
(e) none of above


3. Terminal is a
(a) device used to give supply to a computer
(b) Point at which data may leave or enter the computer
(c) ending point in a program
(d) point where wires are interconnected
(e) an input/output device


4. A computer programmer
(a) enters data into computer
(b) writes programs
(c) changes flow chart into instructions
(d) provides solutions to complex problems
(e) does total planning and thinking for a computer


5.Pickup wrong definition
(a) Off line – is a system peripheral equipment not controlled by CPU
(b) Online – is system in which peripheral equipment is in direct contact with CPU
(c) Peripherals – are hardware under the control of CPU, like punched card readers, tapes, drums, disk, output devices
(d) PL/I is the acronym Peripheral Listing /Index
(e) Program or routine is a set sequence of instructions given to computer for problem solving


6. When a CD (Compact Disc used in audio and Video system) is seen in sunlight, rainbow like colours are seen. This can be explained on the basis of phenomenon of
(a) reflection and diffraction
(b) reflection and transmission
(c) diffraction and transmission
(d) refraction, diffraction and transmission
(e) none of these


7. For reproducing sound, a CD (Compact Disc) audio player uses a
(a) quartz crystal
(b) titanium needle
(c) laser beam
(d) barium titanium ceramic
(e) none of these


8. The memory of a computer is commonly expressed in terms of Kilobytes or Megabytes. A byte is made up of
(a) eight decimal digits (b) eight binary digits
(c) two binary digits (d) two decimal digits (e) none of these


9. Which of the following circuit is used as a ‘Memory device’ in computers?
(a) Rectifier (b) Flip-Flop (c) Comparator (d) Attenuator (e) none of these


10. Which is/are the main provisions of Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000?
(a) Legal recognition to digital signatures and documents.
(b) Finalisation of contracts through electronic media.
(c) Making hacking with computer system an office.
(d) All of the above


11. Consider the following statements about Internet facility:
I. It serves as the largest one-line information system.
II. It provides the most dependable and latest mode for sending E-mail.
III. Recurring expenditure on communication E-mail is very high.
IV. It is often misused and has triggered cyber-crimes.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) I, II and IV (b) I and IV (c) II, III and IV (d) II and III


12. The computer device primarily used to provide hard copy is the
(a) CRT (b) Line Printer (c) Computer Console (d) Card Reader


13. The unit of hardware, which an operator uses to monitor computer processing, is the
(a) Card Reader (b) CPU (c) Line Printer (d) Console


14. Computers can be classified in which of the following hierarchical orders?
(a) PC, Large, Super Micro, Super Computer
(b) Super Micro, PC, Large, Super Computer
(c) PC, Super Micro, Large, Super Computer
(d) Large, Super Micro, Super Computer, PC


15. Which one of the following is a stored program machine?
(a) Micro-processor (b) Calculator
(c) Analog-computer (d) Micro-computer


16. First generation computer systems used
(a) Transistors (b) Vacuum tubes
(c) Magnetic cores (d) Silicon chips


17. Transistors are associated with which computer system?
(a) First generation (b) Fifth generation
(c) Second generation (d) None of these


18. Charles Babbage invented
(a) ENIAC (b) Difference engine (c) Electronic computer (d) Punched card


19. Who wrote the book ‘Computer Liberation and Dream Machine’, the first book on personal computers?
(a) John McCarthy (b) Ted Nelson (c) Niklaus Wirth (d) Karl Capek


20. Who was the inventor of mechanical calculator for adding numbers?
(a) Charles Babbage (b) Peano (c) Newton (d) Pascal


21. The most widely used commercial programming computer language is
(a) BASIC (b) COBOL (c) FORTRAN (d) PASCAL


22.The brain of a computer is
(a) CPU (b) CD (c) Floppy disc (d) Megabyte


23. Foxpro’ is
(a) a medicine (b) a disease (c) a computer language (d) an animal


24.In computer language, one kilobyte equals
(a) 1000 bytes (b) 1024 bytes (c) 100 bytes (d) 8 bytes


25. Which one of the following is not a programming language of a computer?
(a) BASIC (b) FORTRAN (c) LASER (d) PASCAL

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -3

1: Which of the following is the largest unit of data?
A.Bit
b.Byte
c.Nibble
d.Word
e.None of these


2: A standard keyboard used in personal computer has how many keys?
a.102
b.104
c.105
d.107
e.None of the above


3: A sequence of operations performed on data to convert it into useful information is called -
A. Program
B. Data mining
C. Data processing
D. Data cycle
E. None of the above


4: CD-ROM stands for :
A. Compact disk - read once memory
B.Compact disk - read only memory
C.Compressed data - read once memory
D.Compressed data - read only memory
E.None of the above


5: 8 bytes is equal to _______.
A.8 bits
B.1 KB
C.32 bits
D.48 bits
E.64 bits


6: Which of the following printer is an example of line printer?
A.Dot matrix
B.Bubble jet
C.Daisy wheel
D.Band printer
E.None of the above


7: A program's syntax errors are detected by _______.
A.CPU
B.Debugger
C.Compiler
D.Translator
E.None of the above


8: To enter sound signals inside the computer, a computer must have a_____.
A.Hard disk
B.Sound card
C.CD-ROM
D.Mouse
E.All the above


9: Data processing is also known as ______.
A.Calculating
B.Data mining
C.Data warehousing
D.Computing
E.None of the above


10: A computer's main function is ;
A.Display data
B.Convert data into information
C.Convert information into storage
D.Create data from information
E.None of the above

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -2

1. A file containing relatively permanent data is
a)Random file b)Master file c)Transaction file d)Sequential file e) None


2. One million bytes of information is abbreviated as
a) Bit b) KB c) MB d) GB e) None


3. Bing is also known as
a) MSN Search a) Live Search b) Windows Live Search d)) All e) None


4. Microsoft’s latest operating system is
a)Vista b)Vista Advanced c)Windows XP d)Windows 8 e)None


5. AltaVista is a
a)Search engine b)Windows OS c)Browser d)Virus e)Vista Theme


6. What is other name of LAN Card
a)MODEM b)NIC c)Internet Card d)Network Connector e)None


7. Which is the latest type of printer interface?
a)Serial b)DVI c)Parallel d)USB e)none


8. In Windows XP, which shortcut is used you lock the computer?
a) Ctrl + L
b) Windows key + K
c) Ctrl + K
d) Scroll Lock key
e) Windows key + L


9. The maximum number of IDE devices that can be installed in an ATX computer is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5


10. When using characters in Windows, what code does Windows use?
a)ASCII b)UNICODE c)MORSE d)IDBC e)WESTRN


11. Which protocol provides name resolution for host and domain names for a TCP/IP network?
a)HTTP b)TELNET c)SMTP d)DNS e)SNMP


12. How fast is Fast Ethernet?
a)10 Mbps b)100 Mbps c) 256 Kbps d)1 Gbps e)10 Gbps


13. YouTube service of streaming videos online is provided by
a)Google b)Microsoft c)IBM d)Apple e)Sony


14. Which one is not true?
a)Google is a search engine
b)Ubuntu is a system software
c)Windows XP launched in 2001
d)Buzz is an e-Commerce company
e) None


15. A Laptop or Notebook marked 802.11n in its feature, it means
device support
a)Bluetooth b)WiMAX c)USB d)Wi-Fi LAN e)3G


16. In EXCEL, the default workbook opens with
a) One worksheets
b) Two worksheets
c) Three worksheets
d) Four worksheets
e) None


17. In Excel, this surrounds an active cell.
a) Cell border
b) Cell outline
c) Cell rim
d) Cell selector
e) None


18. In H2O the figure 2 is appeared lowered. Which effect has been applied?
a)Superscript
b)Lowered
c)Subscript
d)Laid down
e)None


19. What is the Thesaurus used for?
a) Grammar options
b) Spelling options
c) Opposite Words
d) Synonyms and Antonyms
d) None


20. What is the shortcut of Research command in MS-Word?
a)Alt + click b) F3 c) Ctrl + F d) F7 e) None

Bank IT OFFICER / Specialist Exam PracticePaper -1

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule
(b) referential integrity constraint
(c) action assertion
(d) composite attribute
(e) None of these


2. An applet __________
(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client
(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client
(d) collects data from visitors to a Website
(e) None of these



3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(a) system virus
(b) Trojan horse virus
(c) file virus
(d) macro virus
(e) None of these



4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
(a) Simply parity check
(b) Checksum
(c) Two-dimensional parity check
(d) CRC
(e) None of these



5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
(a) Disk Crash
(b) Mother Board Crash
(c) Corruption of program
(d) Deletion of files
(e) None of these



6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(a) Transport
(b) Network
(c) Data Link
(d) Physical
(e) All of these



7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
(a) Subject-oriented
(b) Integrated
(c) Time-variant
(d) Updateable
(e) None of these



8. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Logical design is software-dependent
(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location
(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model
(d) Logical design is software independent
(e) None of these



9. A range check _____
(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field
(b) verifies that all required data is present
(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit
(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical
(e) None of these



10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(a) HTTP
(b) Browser
(c) WWW
(d) B2B
(e) None of these



11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(a) carries out, the details of an object for
(b) hides, the details of an object from
(c) reveals, the details of an object to
(d) extends, the details of an object beyond
(e) None of these



12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
(a) firewall
(b) proxy server
(c) IP address
(d) domain name
(e) None of these



13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(a) Join index
(b) Bitmap index
(c) B + Tree
(d) Hierarchical index
(e) None of these



14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(a) Data integrity
(b) The type of database
(c) The user’s perspective
(d) The business practices and policies
(e) None of these



15. The ___.converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.
(a) Modem
(b) Router
(c) Gateway
(d) Bridge
(e) All of these



16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
(a) executed
(b) referenced
(c) imported
(d) declared
(e) None of these



17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.
(a) begin the line with a # sign
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)
(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (-_-)
(d) indent the line
(e) None of these



18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
(a) 4GLs
(b) macro languages
(c) object-oriented languages
(d) visual programming languages
(e) None of these



19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks
(b) Virus Attacks
(c) Data Driven Attacks
(d) Fire Attacks
(e) All of these



20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(a) Interrupt request
(b) Forward DNS lookup
(c) Data-Link layer
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) Common gateway interface



21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
(a) Schema, Base and Table
(b) Base, Table and Schema
(c) Key, Base and Table
(d) Schema, Table and View
(e) None of these



22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(a) never sent to the client machine
(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time
(c) sent only upon the client’s request
(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort
(e) sent from the client to the server for processing



23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(a) Define the attribute as required
(b) Define subtypes
(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank
(d) Define supertypes
(e) None of these



24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
(a) Root
(b) Base
(c) Sub
(d) Case
(e) None of these



25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(a) Channel bank
(b) Cluster
(c) Tiger team
(d) Serverless backup
(e) Logical unit

IMPORTANT ANNOUNCEMENT FOR IBPS SPECIALIST OFFICERS EXAM ON 11.03.2012

The Common Written Examination for recruitment of Specialist Officers in 19 Public Sector
Banks will be held on 11.03.2012.  
The examination will be held in one or two sessions at different centres.
No correspondence regarding change of centre of examination/ time  of examination/ post will be entertained.
An email has already been sent to your email addresss specified in your online application  advising you to download the Call Letter for the Written Examination from 28.02.2012 to  10.03.2012. Please take a printout of the call letter in case you have not already done so.   Please note the time mentioned in the call letter.  Please report at the venue for Written
Examination at least 30 minutes prior to the time printed in the call letter (i.e. 8.30 a.m./ 1.00
p.m.). Candidates who report late will not be permitted to take the examination.
The “Acquaint Yourself Booklet” has also been made available on the IBPS website. You may
download the Booklet and study it carefully.


Please note that candidates will NOT BE PERMITTED to appear for the  Common Written Examination without the following documents:
(1) Call Letter for the relevant session of examination with photograph  affixed thereon  
(2) Original fee payment receipt (CBS challan/ e-receipt) 
(3) Original photo-identity proof such as  PAN Card/ Passport/ Driver’s  Licence/ Voter’s Card/ Bank Passbook with photograph/ Photo identity proof Issued by a Gazzetted Officer/ People’s Representative along with a  photograph / Identity Card issued by a recognised college/ university/ Aadhar  card with a photograph/ Employee ID
(4) Photocopy of photo-identity proof (as specified above)


MORE DETAILS : IBPS.IN

IBPS CWE Specialist Officers Call Letters 2012 (hall tickets )

Click here To Download Call Letter for CWE - Specialist Officers
Link to ibps http://ibps.in/html/CWE_SPL.htm

Computer Awareness Quiz -18 for Bank exam

1. For the purposes of defining data needs, a responsibility area is
a) Marketing b) Personnel c) Administration d) Finance e) None


2. The problem statement should include all of the following except:
a) Input. b) Output. c) Processing d) Storage e) None


3. Arranging data such as names in alphabetical order in a table is called:
a)Numbering b)Searching c)Listing d)Sorting e)None


4. Hotmail, a free web-based email service operated by which company?
a) Apple b) Rediff c) Microsoft d) Yahoo e) Google


5. A collection of 4 binary digits is known as.......?
a) Half Bit b)1/2 KB c) Byte d) Nibble e) None


6. Which of the following is not a part of the CPU?
a) Arithmetic and Logic Unit
b) Storage Unit
c) Program Unit
d) Control Unit
e) None


7. Which of the following is not a unit of measurement in computer systems?
a)DPI b)PPI c)API d)Bd e)MB


8. In Windows XP, which shortcut is used to cycle through opened items in taskbar?
a) Ctrl + Tab
b) Alt + Tab
c) Ctrl + Esc
d) Alt + Esc
e) None


9. A digital computer compute the value of expression 2 * 5 - 2 >2 inside
a) RAM b) CPU Chip c) Hard Disk d) Floppy Disk e) MS-Excel


10. To produce a high-quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you
would want to use a
a)Virtual Printer b)Laser Printer c)Ink-jet Printer d)Plotter e)None


11. Which of the following is fastest memory ?
a) DDR RAM b) DDR2 RAM c) DDR3 RAM d) Swap Memory e) Buffer Memory


12. Which protocol is used by operating system to generate error
message like 'Host Unreachable' over a TCP/IP network?
a) HTTP/1.1 b) ICMP c) PPP d) ICGM e) TCP/IP


13. What does SNMP stands for?
a) Simple Network Mail Protocol
b) Single Network Mail Protocol
c) Single Network Message Protocol
d) Simple Network Management Protocol
e) None


14. On a school computer, Lucy learned how to copy programs.
A classmate asked her to copy a program for his home use.
Her most ethical response would be which of the following?
a) I'll copy it, but you have to promise not to tell anyone.
b) I don't know how to copy disks.
c) I can't copy it because it will break copyright laws.
d) I'll copy it for you, but you can't copy it for anyone else.
e) None


15. Which of the following is not true?
a)LOGO stands for Live On Google’s Orkut
b)BIOS is a system software
c)GRUB is a Linux bootloader
d)Ruby is a web scripting language
e)LILO is a Linux bootloader


16. What is the function of Drop Cap?
a) It does not allow capital letters to be used in the documents.
b) It makes first letter of each word capital letter in the documents
c) It lets you begin a paragraph with a large dropped initial capital letter
d) It automatically starts all paragraphs and sentences with capital letters.
e) None


17. What is Mail-Merge?
a) a web based e-mail service with no spam
b) a name of Yahoo! MINDSET search feature
c) a new virus-hoax which can delete data from mail-inbox
d) a feature of MS-Word used to create multiple documents like letters, mailing labels,name tags etc.
e) None


18. In MS-Excel 2003, the default workbook sheet contain maximum………?
a) 65535 Rows b) 65536 Rows e) 1048576 Rows e) 65537 Rows c) None


19. In MS-Word, a menu item in dim color (gray) indicate that the menu is ?
a) Toggle Menu
b) Unavailable for current context
c) Not much required menu
d) Over Used Menu
e) None


20.Physical components of a computer is called______.
a)Hardware b)Software c)Firewall e)None

Computer Awareness Quiz -17 Ibps exam :Solved Paper

1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share
common features , toolbars and menus are known as ....
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these


2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these


3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these


4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these


5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory
and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these


6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these


7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer's hardware devices and ______
software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these


8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your
electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these


9. The following are all computing devices , except.........
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these


10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these


11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk
drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these


12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these


13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a meAns : by
which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these


14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these


15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these


16. URL stands for ........
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these


17. A database management system (DBMS) is a ............
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these


18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these


19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these


20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these


21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these


22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user's computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm
program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these


23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these


24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet
connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these


25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these

Computer Awareness Quiz -16 Ibps exam :Solved Paper

1. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n)
____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these


2. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these


3. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred
to as .....
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these


4. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these


5. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these


6. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these


7. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these


8. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these


9. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each
field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these


10. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these


11. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to
the computer system.
(A) command - based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these


12. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these


13. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these


14. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these


15. Making a field ______ meAns : that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these


16. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these


17. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these


18. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these


19. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system's information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these


20. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these


21. The internet is ......
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these


22. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these


23. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these


24. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these


25. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these

Reasoning ability and Numerical Aptitude Test -5 for ibps exam

1. Suresh is taller than Prabhu but shorter than Ram, Prabhu is as tall as Neeraj but taller than Nilesh. Which of the following statements is definitely true for Neeraj?
(a) Neeraj is shorter than Nilesh
(b) Neeraj is the tallest
(c) Neeraj is the shortest
(d) Neeraj is taller than Nilesh
(e) None of these


2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAINLESS each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these


3. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following sequence?
ARRANGEMENTS, RRANGEMENT, RANGEMEN, ?, NGEM
(a) RANGEME
(b) ANGEME
(c) ANGEMENT
(d) NGEMEN
(e) None of these


4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) Baking
(b) Steaming
(c) Cooking
(d) Frying
(e) Boiling


5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) Radish
(b) Orange
(c) Pear
(d) Mango
(e) Apple


6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) Earth
(b) Moon
(c) Saturn
(d) Pluto
(e) Venus


7. If water is called food, food is called drink, drink is called blue, blue is called red, red is called
white and white is called brown, then what is the colour of ?blood? ?
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Brown
(d) White
(e) Drink


8. In a certain code language, the word ENQUIRY is written as YRIUQNE. How will the word REQUIRE be written in the code language ?
(a) QERUERI
(b) REQUERI
(c) ERIUQER
(d) IREUQER
(e) None of these


9. In a certain code language DESERT is written RTSEDE. How will the word FAULTS the written in that code language?
(a) TSULFA
(b) AFLUST
(c) LUAFST
(d) UAFSTL
(e) None of these


10. How many meaningful English word can be formed by using the second, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word APPROPRIATION, each only once, but in different sequence ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of these
(e) More than three


Directions (Qs. 11?15) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
11. 7589 ? ? = 3434
(a) 3721
(b) 4155
(c) 3246
(d) 11023
(e) None of these


12. 300 + (10)2 x 2 = ?
(a) 450
(b) 800
(c) 500
(d) 550
(e) None of these


13. 12.05 x 5.4 ÷ 0.6 = ?
(a) 105.55
(b) 108.45
(c) 118.45
(d) 118.55
(e) None of these


14. 2435 ÷ 24 = 24?
(a) 2.5
(b) 3.5
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) None of these


15. 78 x 14 + 7645 ? ? = 8247
(a) 580
(b) 590
(c) 490
(d) 480
(e) None of these


Directions (Qs. 16?17) :
I. ?P + Q? means P is the brother of Q
II. ?P x Q? means P is the mother of Q
III. ?P ÷ Q? means P is the sister of Q
IV. ?P ? Q? means Q is the father of P
16. Which of the following represents ?B is the
material uncle of C??
(a) B + A x C
(b) B x C + A
(c) B ÷ C + A
(d) B x A + c
(e) None of these


17. Which of the following statements is not necessary
to answer the above question?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only III
(c) Only III and IV
(d) Either II or III
(e) All are necessary


18. Pointing towards a woman a boy said, ?she is the only daughter of my mother?s brother?s only brother-in- law?. How the woman is related to the boy?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister-in-law
(d) Sister
(e) None of these


19. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following
does not belong to that group?
(a) 63
(b) 64
(c) 39
(d) 48
(e) 79


20. In a certain code language DOWNBEAT is written as TABEWNDO. How will the word PROSPECT be written in that code language?
(a) RPSOEPTC
(b) TCPEOSPR
(c) ORPSPTCE
(d) TCPREPOS
(e) None of these

CURRENT AFFAIRS 2012 - Quiz 11

1. The book 'Non-Stop India' by a journalist-author was recently launched. Name the journalist-author who authored the book ?
(A) Mark Tully
(B) Sophie Raworth
(C) Jane Hill
(D) Babita Sharma


2. The 40th Anniversary of Vijay Diwas was celebrated on which day marking the finest hour of the Indian armed forces when they defeated Pakistan, leading to the creation of Bangladesh in 1971?
(A) December 12
(B) December 15
(C) December 16
(D) December 18

3. The Himachal Pradesh Cabinet on December 15, 2011 approved amendment to the state industrial policy. Consider the following statements—
(i) The amended industrial policy seeks to promote environmentally sustainable development in the state and encourage cleaner production and adoption.
(ii) Under this policy, disincentive industries will be put on negative list.

Choose the right option—
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i) is correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct


4. The Supreme Court of India directed Tamil Nadu to ensure that the water level in the Mulla- periyar dam does not exceed......but declined to entertain Kerala's plea for reducing the level to......"A good plan, violently executed now, is better than a perfect plan next week."
(A) 136 feet; 120 feet
(B) 120 feet; 136 feet
(C) 140 feet; 112 feet
(D) 150 feet; 140 feet


5. Name the Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) leader who was inducted into the Union Cabinet as Civil Aviation Minister on December 18,2011 ?
(A) Ajit Singh
(B) Jay ant Chaudhary
(C) Devendra Nagpal
(D) Sanjay Singh Chauhan


6. Where was the midnight international marathon held recently ?
(A) Bangalore
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Kolkata


7. Which country is set to open military base in Indian Ocean ?
(A) Russia
(B) North Korea
(C) China
(D) None of the above


8. Who has been named PGA Tour Player of the Year ?
(A) Tiger Woods
(B) Luke Donald
(C) Ian Poulter
(D) Rory Mcllroy


9. Which bank has been selected as best public sector bank in India ?
(A) SBI
(B) PNB
(C) ICICI
(D) Bank of Baroda


10. Who won the under-14 boys American Cup Tennis Championship in Miami, Florida ?
(A) Sumit Nagal
(B) Dusan Vukicevic
(C) David Volfson
(D) Benjamin Hennestad


11. Name the NRI architect who won Glory of India Award and Certificate of Excellence recently ?
(A) Ar Mohammed Aun
(B) Surendra Kumar Kaushik
(C) S.R. Nathan
(D) None of the above


12. Which Indian state is set to get Green Field Industrial Corridor ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Mizoram
(C) Manipur
(D) Arunachal Pradesh


13. Who is the 2nd person to score double century in One-day International Cricket ?
(A) Virendar Sehwag
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) RAshwin
(D) M.S.Dhoni


14. Readers of international travel magazine Conde Nast Traveller voted which city in Rajasthan as the best leisure destination in India ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Udaipur
(C) Jaisalmer
(D) Bikaner


15. The Chhattisgarh government on Dec. 7, 2011 decided to raise the percentage of reservation for the scheduled tribes and schedulecastes. The STs will now get_whereas the SCs will get_reservation.
(A) 32; 12
(B) 12; 32
(C) 32; 32
(D) 12; 12


16. India's Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) showed a 3 point decline, dropping to what number per 1,000 live births, as per government data released on December 28, 2011 ?
(A) 43
(B) 55
(C) 47
(D) 50


17. Maharashtra government planned to provide freemedicare for poor families. Consider the following statements:
(i) The plan will benefit 50 lakh families
(ii) The plan will cover eight districts in state

Choose the right option—
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i) is correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct


18. Lok Sabha on December 27, 2011 passed the Lokpal and Loka-yukta Bill, 2011. Consider the following statements—
(i) The setting up of Lokayuk-tas by the states would not be mandatory
(ii) The constitutional amendment Bill fell through

Choose the right option:
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i) is correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct


19. Name the Iranian teenager who won World Snooker title recently—
(A) Hossein Vafaei Ayouri
(B) LeeWalkar
(C) Steve Mizerak
(D) None of the above


20. Eminent Assamese litterateur and Jnanpith award winner, Indira Goswami, popularly known as Mamoni Raisom Goswami passed away in Guwahati on November 29, 2011. Which of the following facts regarding her is/are not true ?

(i) Goswami who was an expert in Ramayani studies, published her first collection of short stories Chinaki Morom at the age of 20.
(ii) She won the Sahitya Akademi Award for her powerful novel Dasarathir Khoj in 1982.
PD/March/2012/1656
(iii) She was India's first Principal Prince Claus Laureate.
(iv) Dr. Goswami in 2004 mediated between the Centre and the ULFA and succeeded in convincing both the government and the ULFA to come forward for negotiations.

(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)


21. Social activist who was chosen for the Basava award for the year 2010 for excellence in service in the social sector by the Karnataka State Government ?
(A) C. R. Neelakandan
(B) Reerika Khera
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Aruna Roy


22. Which one of the following governments launched Kishori scheme for adolescent girls ?
(A) Delhi state government
(B) Haryana state government
(C) Bihar state government
(D) Odisha state government

23. The Delhi Assembly on December 1, 2011 passed the Delhi Municipal Corporation, MCD (Amendment) Bill-2011 to tri-furcate the civic body with voice vote. The MCD came into existence on—
(A) April 7,1958
(B) April 5,1950
(C) March 10,1960
(D) November 2,1990



24. The Golden Peacock award for the Best film was given to which of the following films at the 42nd International Film Festival of India which came to an end at the Kala Academy in Panaji, Goa on December 3,2011 ?
(A) Russian Film Elena
(B) An Israeli Film Restoration
(C) Columbian Film Porfirio
(D) Malayalam Film Adaminte Makan Abu


25. Who among the following was associated with Velvet Revolution ?
(A) Kimjong-il
(B) Vaclav Havel
(C) Wangari Mathai
(D) None of the above